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Hi, this question is more theoretical and mybe confusing but I have to ask. I wonder what hapens when an subprocedure within service program is called from Toolbox ServiceProgramCall, what realy hapens on as400 side. As I imagined, process flow should be like this: -probably there is an resident IBM predefined job waiting for srvpgm request inside which srvpgm is activated. -on first request for subproc in particular srvpgm A is ACTIVATED in probably *CALLER ACTGRP -any other subsequent request reuses already active instance of srvpgm A Now, if my presumptions are correct , there are numerous questions necessary to know answers if you are building in example web application with many parallel sessions active. Are there any recomandations for developers whose service pgms will be called from web apps? What if I created srvpgm that will be activated in NAMED activation group (does it make sense?)?? If evry ServiceProgramCall instance has its own job on as400 then I wont think about synchronisation? Is it good to have an singleton with synchronized accessor methods to srvpgm calls - allways use one instance of ServiceProgramCall? In which cases synchronisation isn't necessary? this is example of srvpgm that makes me think about questions above: all stuff is much complicated, I simplified all thing to make all it more clar RPG side: SrvPgmProd - gives info about 3 things related to customer subProc analyzeCustomer(CUSTID) - setups srvpgm data to related ID getCustThing01() - gets Thing01 related stuff getCustThing02() - gets Thing02 related stuff getCustThing03() - gets Thing03 related stuff JAVA side: (order of calling sub proc is important) USER1 instantiate and setup ServiceProgramCall USER1 first calls analyzeCustomer(CUSTID) then in any order calls rest of three subproc USER1 uses SpecialClass that performs described actions and returns all gathered data in Element object. What will happen if paralel USER2 of WEB APP using its own SpecialClass calls analyzeCustomer with diferent CUSTID moment after USER1 did the same thing and USER2 doesn't use SAME INSTANCE of ServiceProgramCall???? Is USER1 than going to grab wrong data?? I've already realized WEB app that invokes srvpgm trough XMLHTTPRequests and all work fine but all the time I have doubt that everything went soo fine, there must be something.... I'm missing lot of theory related to interaction between WEB APPS and srvPgms so if you have some good suggestion, link, advice, anything please..... PS. Is it good to wrap this SrvPgmCall in Web Service??? What about synchronization then?? Does it make sense??? When? Best regards, dipl.ing. Igor Bešlić, IBM Certified Specialist ILE RPG Programmer VOLKSBANK d.d. OJ Informatika Varšavska 9, 10000 Zagreb tel: +385 1 4801 895
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